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Related Exams
Cisco 200-201 Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and generate actual events according
to the data received. Which technology should the engineer use to accomplish this task?
A. Firepower B. Email Security Appliance C. Web Security Appliance D. Stealthwatch
Answer: D
Explanation: Stealthwatch is the technology that an engineer should use to fetch logs from
a proxy server and generate actual events based on the data received. Cisco Secure
Network Analytics, formerly known as Stealthwatch, provides the capability to configure
proxy server logs so that the Flow Collector can receive the information. The Stealthwatch
Management Console then displays this information on the Flow Proxy Records page,
which includes URLs and application names of the traffic inside a network going through
Which technology prevents end-device to end-device IP traceability?
A. encryption B. load balancing C. NAT/PAT D. tunneling
Answer: C
Explanation: NAT (Network Address Translation) and PAT (Port Address Translation) are
technologies that modify the IP address information in packet headers as they pass
through a router or firewall, making it difficult to trace the communication back to the
originating end-device.
Question # 3
Which statement describes patch management?
A. scanning servers and workstations for missing patches and vulnerabilities B. managing and keeping previous patches lists documented for audit purposes C. process of appropriate distribution of system or software updates D. workflow of distributing mitigations of newly found vulnerabilities
Answer: C
Explanation: Patch management is the process of distributing and managing updates to
software and systems. These updates can include patches for security vulnerabilities, bug
fixes, andenhancements to improve performance or add new features. It ensures that
systems are up-to-date, secure, and performing optimally. References := Cisco
Cybersecurity Training
Question # 4
Developers must implement tasks on remote Windows environments. They decided to usescripts for enterprise applications through PowerShell. Why does the functionality notwork?
A. WMI must be configured. B. Symlinks must be enabled. C. Ext4 must be implemented. D. MBR must be set up.
Answer: D
Question # 5
Which management concept best describes developing, operating, maintaining, upgrading,
and disposing of all resources?
A. configuration B. vulnerability C. asset D. patch
Answer: C
Question # 6
What is a difference between rule-based and role-based access control mechanisms?
A. Rule-based are simple and easy to execute, and role-based are well-defined. B. Role-based are an appropriate choice in geographically diverse workgroups, and rulebased are for simply structured workgroups. C. Rule-based are less granular, and role-based have time constraints. D. Role-based are efficient in small workgroups, and rule-based are preferred in timedefined workgroups.
Answer: B
Question # 7
What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?
A. Stateful inspection verifies contents at Layer 4. and deep packet inspection verifies
connection at Layer 7. B. Stateful inspection is more secure than deep packet inspection on Layer 7. C. Deep packet inspection is more secure than stateful inspection on Layer 4. D. Deep packet inspection allows visibility on Layer 7, and stateful inspection allows
visibility on Layer 4.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Deep packet inspection (DPI) is a form of computer network packet filtering
that examines the data part (and possibly also the header) of a packet as it passes an
inspection point, searching for protocol non-compliance, viruses, spam, intrusions, or
defined criteria to decide whether the packet may pass or if it needs to be routed to a
different destination, or, for the purpose of collecting statistical information. It is a form of
filtering employed at the security layer level of the OSI model. Stateful inspection, on the
other hand, is a firewall technology that monitors the state of active connections and
determines which network packets to allow through the firewall. Stateful inspection has
largely replaced older technologies that were static and examined packets in isolation.
Therefore, DPI is considered more secure because it examines the contents of the packets
at Layer 7 (the application layer), while stateful inspection typically works up to Layer 4 (the
Which attack method is being used when an attacker tries to compromise a network with
an authentication system that uses only 4-digit numeric passwords and no username?
A. SQL injection B. dictionary C. replay D. cross-site scripting
Answer: B
Explanation: A dictionary attack is a method used to break into a password-protected
computer or server by systematically entering every word in a dictionary as a password. In
the context of an authentication system that uses only 4-digit numeric passwords, a
dictionary attack would involve trying all possible combinations of 4-digit numbers until the
materials discuss various attack methods, including dictionary attacks, and how they can
be used to compromise networks
Question # 9
What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images?
A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash. B. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence. C. Tampered images are used as evidence. D. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.
Answer: D
Explanation: The difference between tampered and untampered disk images is:
Tampered Images: These are disk images that have been altered or modified in
some way after their initial creation. The stored hash and the computed hash
will not match if the image has been tampered with.
Untampered Images: These are disk images that have not been altered since their
creation. They are considered authentic and reliable for forensic investigations.
The stored hash and the computed hash will match, confirming that the image has
remained unchanged.
Therefore, the correct answer is: D. Untampered images are used for forensic
investigations.
Question # 10
A network engineer discovers that a foreign government hacked one of the defensecontractors in their home country and stole intellectual property. What is the threat agent inthis situation?
A. the intellectual property that was stolen B. the defense contractor who stored the intellectual property C. the method used to conduct the attack D. the foreign government that conducted the attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
A threat agent is the entity that is responsible for initiating a threat action that
exploits a vulnerability. A threat agent can be a person, a group, an organization, or a
system. In this scenario, the threat agent is the foreign government that hacked the
defense contractor and stole the intellectual property. The threat agent’s motivation,
capability, and resources determine the level of threat they pose to the
A security engineer must protect the company from known issues that trigger adware.Recently new incident has been raised that could harm the system. Which securityconcepts are present in this scenario?
A. exploit and patching B. risk and evidence C. analysis and remediation D. vulnerability and threat
Answer: D
Explanation:
The security scenario involves protecting the company from known issues that
trigger adware and addressing a recent incident that could harm the system.
This scenario involves identifying vulnerabilities (weaknesses in the system that
can be exploited) and threats (potential harm that can exploit these vulnerabilities).
A vulnerability is an inherent flaw in the system, while a threat is an event or
condition that has the potential to exploit the vulnerability.
The security engineer needs to assess both the vulnerabilities present and the
threats that could exploit these vulnerabilities to implement effective protection
measures.
References
Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals
Concepts of Vulnerability and Threat in Cybersecurity
Best Practices in Vulnerability Management
Question # 12
Which two pieces of information are collected from the IPv4 protocol header? (Choosetwo.)
A. UDP port to which the traffic is destined B. TCP port from which the traffic was sourced C. source IP address of the packet D. destination IP address of the packet E. UDP port from which the traffic is sourced
Answer: C,D
Explanation: The IPv4 protocol header contains various fields that provide essential
information for routing and delivery of packets across an IP network. Two key pieces of
information collected from the IPv4 header are the source IP address and the destination
IP address of the packet. These addresses are crucial for identifying where a packet is
coming from and where it is intended to go12.
References := The structure and fields of the IPv4 header, including the source and
destination IP addresses, are explained in detail in networking resources and
documentation, such as the ComputerNetworkingNotes tutorial on IPv4 Header Structure1,
and the Engineering LibreTexts on the IPv4 Header2.
Question # 13
How does certificate authority impact a security system?
A. It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate B. It validates domain identity of a SSL certificate C. It authenticates domain identity when requesting SSL certificate D. It validates client identity when communicating with the server
Answer: B
Explanation: A Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for issuing digital certificates to
validate the identity of the certificate holder andprovide a means to establish secure
communications over networks like the Internet. References := Cisco Cybersecurity Source
Documents
Question # 14
An organization that develops high-end technology is going through an internal audit Theorganization uses two databases The main database stores patent information and asecondary database stores employee names and contact information A compliance team isasked to analyze the infrastructure and identify protected data Which two types ofprotected data should be identified? (Choose two)
A. Personally Identifiable Information (Pll) B. Payment Card Industry (PCI) C. Protected Hearth Information (PHI) D. Intellectual Property (IP) E. Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Protected data refers to any information that is legally guarded or sensitive
due to its nature. In the context of the organization described, the main database contains
Intellectual Property (IP), which includes patents that are legally protected forms of
inventions and designs. The secondary database holds Personally Identifiable
Information (PII), which comprises data that can be used to identify individuals, such as
names and contact details. Both IP and PII are considered protected data and should be
identified during an internal audit to ensure they are handled according to legal and
What is a difference between an inline and a tap mode traffic monitoring?
A. Inline monitors traffic without examining other devices, while a tap mode tags traffic andexamines the data from monitoring devices. B. Tap mode monitors traffic direction, while inline mode keeps packet data as it passes through the monitoring devices. C. Tap mode monitors packets and their content with the highest speed, while the inlinemode draws a packet path for analysis D. Inline mode monitors traffic path, examining any traffic at a wire speed, while a tap mode
monitors traffic as it crosses the network.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Inline mode is used for monitoring the traffic path and can examine any
traffic at wire speed. This means that it can analyze data packets as they pass through in
real-time. On the other hand, tap mode is used for monitoring traffic as it traverses across
the network but does not have the capability to examine data at wire speed like inline
mode. References: The information can be referenced from Cisco’s official documentation
A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of thecompany's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set ofapplications on all PCs.Which technology should be used to accomplish this task?
A. application whitelisting/blacklisting B. network NGFW C. host-based IDS D. antivirus/antispyware software
Answer: A
Explanation:
Application whitelisting/blacklisting is a technology used to control which
applications are allowed to execute on a company’s corporate PCs. Whitelisting allows only
approved applications to run, while blacklisting prevents specific applications from running.
This approach is effective for managing application usage across an enterprise.
Question # 19
What is an advantage of symmetric over asymmetric encryption?
A. A key is generated on demand according to data type. B. A one-time encryption key is generated for data transmission C. It is suited for transmitting large amounts of data. D. It is a faster encryption mechanism for sessions
Answer: D
Explanation:
Symmetric encryption is a type of encryption that uses the same key to
encrypt and decrypt data. Asymmetric encryption is a type of encryption that uses a pair of
keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be used to encrypt data, but only
the private key can decrypt it, and vice versa. An advantage of symmetric encryption over
asymmetric encryption is that it is faster and more efficient for encrypting large amounts of
data, such as in sessions or bulk transfers. Asymmetric encryption is slower and more
computationally intensive, but it is more secure and suitable for key exchange or digital
Security Monitoring, Lesson 2.3: Cryptography and PKI, Topic 2.3.1: Cryptography
Question # 20
The security team has detected an ongoing spam campaign targeting the organization. Theteam's approach is to push back the cyber kill chain and mitigate ongoing incidents. Atwhich phase of the cyber kill chain should the security team mitigate this type of attack?
A. actions B. delivery C. reconnaissance D. installation
Answer: B
Explanation: In the context of the cyber kill chain model, spam campaigns fall under the
“delivery” phase where attackers deliver malicious payloads via email or other means to
target systems or networks. References: Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals,
A security engineer must investigate a recent breach within the organization. An engineer noticed that a breached workstation is trying to connect to the domain "Ranso4730-mware92-647". which is known as malicious. In which step of the Cyber Kill Chain is thisevent?
A. Vaporization B. Delivery C. reconnaissance D. Action on objectives
Answer: D
Explanation:
The event where a breached workstation is trying to connect to a known malicious
domain suggests that the attacker is moving towards their end goals, which
typically involves actions on objectives.
In the Cyber Kill Chain framework, "Action on objectives" refers to the steps taken
by an attacker to achieve their intended outcomes, such as data exfiltration,
destruction, or ransom demands.
This phase involves the attacker executing their final mission within the target
environment, leveraging access gained in earlier stages of the attack.
References
Lockheed Martin Cyber Kill Chain
Understanding the Stages of Cyber Attacks
Incident Response and the Cyber Kill Chain
Question # 22
What is the impact of encryption?
A. Confidentiality of the data is kept secure and permissions are validated B. Data is accessible and available to permitted individuals C. Data is unaltered and its integrity is preserved D. Data is secure and unreadable without decrypting it
Answer: D
Explanation: Encryption ensures that data is secure and unreadable to unauthorized
individuals without the proper decryption key. It is a critical aspect of maintaining data
confidentiality and security, especially in the transmission of sensitive information over
potentially insecure networks1.
References := What Is Encryption? Explanation and Types - Cisco
Question # 23
Which type of data is used to detect anomalies in the network?
A. statistical data B. alert data C. transaction data D. metadata
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statistical data is crucial for detecting anomalies within a network because it
provides a baseline of normal behavior.
Anomaly detection involves comparing current network data against historical
statistical data to identify deviations from expected patterns.
This method helps in identifying unusual activities that could signify a security
threat, such as unusual login attempts, data transfers, or access patterns.
Statistical data analysis tools use metrics such as mean, variance, and standard
deviation to flag anomalies, aiding in proactive threat detection.
References
Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals
Network Anomaly Detection Techniques
Statistical Methods in Cybersecurity
Question # 24
What is the purpose of command and control for network-aware malware?
A. It contacts a remote server for commands and updates B. It takes over the user account for analysis C. It controls and shuts down services on the infected host. D. It helps the malware to profile the host
Answer: A
Explanation: The purpose of command and control (C&C) for network-aware malware is to
allow an attacker to remotely control compromised systems. This includes sending
commands to the malware, receiving data from the infected host, and updating the
malware to evade detection or enhance its capabilities.
: The CBROPS course materials cover the topic of network-aware malware and the role of
command and control servers in managing such malware
Question # 25
What describes the defense-m-depth principle?
A. defining precise guidelines for new workstation installations B. categorizing critical assets within the organization C. isolating guest Wi-Fi from the focal network D. implementing alerts for unexpected asset malfunctions
Answer: D
Explanation: The defense-in-depth principle is a strategy of applying multiple layers of
security controls to protect an asset from threats. It is based on the assumption that no
single security measure is sufficient to prevent all attacks, and that each layer adds more
protection and reduces the risk of compromise. One example of applying the defense-indepth principle is implementing alerts for unexpected asset malfunctions, which can
indicate a potential security breach or incident. References: Cisco Cybersecurity
Operations Fundamentals, Module 1: Security Concepts, Lesson 1.1: The CIA Triad and
Why is encryption challenging to security monitoring?
A. Encryption analysis is used by attackers to monitor VPN tunnels. B. Encryption is used by threat actors as a method of evasion and obfuscation. C. Encryption introduces additional processing requirements by the CPU. D. Encryption introduces larger packet sizes to analyze and store.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Encryption is challenging to security monitoring because it can be used by threat actors as
a method of evasion and obfuscation. Encryption can prevent security devices from
inspecting the content or payload of the network traffic, making it difficult to detect
malicious activity or signatures. Encryption can also hide the source and destination of the
traffic, making it hard to trace the origin or destination of the attack.
What are the two differences between stateful and deep packet inspection? (Choose two )
A. Stateful inspection is capable of TCP state tracking, and deep packet filtering checksonly TCP source and destination ports B. Deep packet inspection is capable of malware blocking, and stateful inspection is not C. Deep packet inspection operates on Layer 3 and 4. and stateful inspection operates onLayer 3 of the OSI model D. Deep packet inspection is capable of TCP state monitoring only, and stateful inspectioncan inspect TCP and UDP. E. Stateful inspection is capable of packet data inspections, and deep packet inspection isnot
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A: Stateful inspection tracks the state of network connections, such as TCP
streams, to determine if a packet is part of an established connection.
B: Deep packet inspection examines the data part (payload) of a packet and can
identify, block, or reroute packets with specific types of malware. Stateful
inspection does not inspect the payload for malware.
Question # 28
What describes the concept of data consistently and readily being accessible for legitimate
users?
A. integrity B. availability C. accessibility D. confidentiality
Answer: B
Explanation:
Availability is one of the three pillars of the CIA triad, a model that defines
the principles of information security. Availability describes the concept of data consistently
and readily being accessible for legitimate users. Availability ensures that the network and
systems are operational and resilient to disruptions, such as denial-of-service attacks,
hardware failures, or natural disasters. Availability also involves maintaining backup and
recovery procedures, load balancing, and redundancy mechanisms.
A. Address space layout randomization B. Validate and sanitize user input C. ...in the web server as a nonprivileged user D. ...cost profiling
Answer: B
Explanation:
SQL injection is a type of injection attack where malicious SQL statements are
inserted into an entry field for execution.
The primary way to prevent SQL injection is by validating and sanitizing user input.
This involves checking the input for malicious content and ensuring it adheres to
expected patterns.
Prepared statements (parameterized queries) are also highly effective, as they
treat user input as data rather than executable code.
Implementing these practices ensures that any input received from users does not
manipulate SQL queries in a harmful way.
References
OWASP SQL Injection Prevention Cheat Sheet
Best Practices for Input Validation and Sanitization
Secure Coding Guidelines
Question # 31
An intruder attempted malicious activity and exchanged emails with a user and receivedcorporate information, including email distribution lists. The intruder asked the user toengage with a link in an email. When the fink launched, it infected machines and theintruder was able to access the corporate network.Which testing method did the intruder use?
A. social engineering B. eavesdropping C. piggybacking D. tailgating
Answer: A
Explanation:
Social engineering is a type of testing method that involves manipulating or
deceiving people into performing actions or divulging information that can compromise the
security of the organization. Social engineering can take various forms, such as phishing,
vishing, baiting, quid pro quo, or impersonation. The scenario in the question is an example
of a phishing attack, where the intruder sent an email to the user that appeared to be
legitimate and contained a malicious link that infected the user’s machine and allowed the
Why should an engineer use a full packet capture to investigate a security breach?
A. It captures the TCP flags set within each packet for the engineer to focus on suspicious
packets to identify malicious activity B. It collects metadata for the engineer to analyze, including IP traffic packet data that is
sorted, parsed, and indexed. C. It provides the full TCP streams for the engineer to follow the metadata to identify the
incoming threat. D. It reconstructs the event allowing the engineer to identify the root cause by seeing what
took place during the breach
Answer: D
Explanation: Full packet capture (FPC) is a valuable tool for investigating security
breaches because it provides comprehensive data that can be used to reconstruct the
event and identify the root cause. By capturing every packet, FPC allows engineers to see
exactly what took place during the breach, including the TCP flags set within each packet,
which can help focus on suspicious packets to identify malicious activity. It also collects
metadata,including IP traffic packet data that is sorted, parsed, and indexed, and provides
the full TCP streams to follow the metadata to identify the incoming threat
Question # 33
An engineer is sharing folders and files with different departments and got this error: "No
such file or directory". What must the engineer verify next?
A. memory allocation B. symlinks C. permission D. disk space
Answer: C
Question # 34
A suspicious user opened a connection from a compromised host inside an organization.Traffic was going through a router and the network administrator was able to identify thisflow. The admin was following 5-tuple to collect needed data. Which information wasgathered based on this approach?
A. direct path B. user name C. protocol D. NAT
Answer: D
Question # 35
What are two differences in how tampered and untampered disk images affect a security
incident? (Choose two.)
A. Untampered images are used in the security investigation process B. Tampered images are used in the security investigation process C. The image is tampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match D. Tampered images are used in the incident recovery process E. The image is untampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match
Answer: A,E
Explanation: Untampered images are crucial for security investigations as they provide
original evidence that has not been altered or corrupted; their integrity and authenticity can
be verified by comparing the stored hash and the computed hash of the image. If they
match, the image is untampered and can be used for analysis. Tampered images, on the
other hand, are useless for security investigations as they may contain false or misleading
information; their integrity and authenticity are compromised by the modification of the
image data. Tampered images may be used for incident recovery purposes, such as
restoring a system to a previous state, but not for forensic purposes. References := Cisco
A. an organizational approach to events that could lead to asset loss or disruption of
operations B. an organizational approach to security management to ensure a service lifecycle and
continuous improvements C. an organizational approach to disaster recovery and timely restoration of operational
services D. an organizational approach to system backup and data archiving aligned to regulations
Answer: A
Explanation: An incident response plan is a document that defines the roles and
responsibilities, procedures, and processes for detecting, analyzing, containing,
eradicating, recovering, and learning from security incidents. The purpose of an incident
response plan is to minimize the impact of incidents on the organization’s assets,
operations, and reputation, and to restore normal operations as quickly as possible. An
incident response plan is not the same as a security management plan, a disaster recovery
plan, or a backup and archiving plan, although they may be related or complementary.
References := Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) -
Cisco, page 92; NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2, Computer Security Incident Handling Guide, page
2-3
Question # 37
What specific type of analysis is assigning values to the scenario to see expected
outcomes?
A. deterministic B. exploratory C. probabilistic D. descriptive
Answer: A
Explanation:
This type of analysis is deterministic because it assigns fixed values to the
scenario and calculates the expected outcomes based on those values. Deterministic
analysis does not account for uncertainty or randomness in the scenario.
Which action should be taken if the system is overwhelmed with alerts when false positives
and false negatives are compared?
A. Modify the settings of the intrusion detection system. B. Design criteria for reviewing alerts. C. Redefine signature rules. D. Adjust the alerts schedule.
Answer:B
Explanation: When a system is overwhelmed with alerts, designing criteria for reviewing
alerts can help prioritize and manage them more effectively. This approach allows for a
structured review process that can distinguish between false positives, false negatives, and
legitimate alerts, reducing the overall number of alerts that require attention3.
References := The strategy of designing criteria for reviewing alerts is recommended in
cybersecurity best practices to manage alert fatigue and improve the efficiency of security
operations3.
Question # 39
What is data encapsulation?
A. Browsing history is erased automatically with every session. B. The protocol of the sending host adds additional data to the packet header. C. Data is encrypted backwards, which makes it unusable. D. Multiple hosts can be supported with only a few public IP addresses.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data encapsulation is a process in networking where the protocol stack of the
sending host adds headers (and sometimes trailers) to the data.
Each layer of the OSI or TCP/IP model adds its own header to the data as it
passes down the layers, preparing it for transmission over the network.
For example, in the TCP/IP model, data starts at the application layer and is
encapsulated at each subsequent layer (Transport, Internet, and Network Access)
before being transmitted.
This encapsulation ensures that the data is correctly formatted and routed to its
destination, where the headers are stripped off in reverse order by the receiving
host.
References
Networking Fundamentals by Cisco
OSI Model and Data Encapsulation Process
Understanding TCP/IP Encapsulation
Question # 40
What is the practice of giving an employee access to only the resources needed toaccomplish their job?
A. principle of least privilege B. organizational separation C. separation of duties D. need to know principle
Answer: A
Explanation: The principle of least privilege is a security best practice that states that an
employee should have access to only the minimum amount of resources and permissions
needed to perform their job function. This principle reduces the attack surface and the
potential damage that can be caused by a compromised account, a malicious insider, or
human error. The principle of least privilege can be enforced by using role-based access
control (RBAC) and regular audits. References: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity
Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) - Cisco, page 1-10; 200-201 CBROPS - Cisco, exam
topic 1.2.a
Question # 41
A user received a malicious attachment but did not run it. Which category classifies theintrusion?
A. weaponization B. reconnaissance C. installation D. delivery
Answer: D
Question # 42
A large load of data is being transferred to an external destination via UDP 53 port. Which
obfuscation technique is used?
A. proxied traffic B. C&C connection C. data masking D. DNS tunneling
Answer: D
Question # 43
Which regular expression matches loopback IP address (127.0.0.1)?
A. &127%0%0%1 B. %127.0.0.1% C. 127\.0\.0\.1 D. 127[.0.].0.\
Answer: C
Question # 44
What is a benefit of using asymmetric cryptography?
A. decrypts data with one key B. fast data transfer C. secure data transfer D. encrypts data with one key
Answer: C
Explanation: Asymmetric cryptography, also known as public key cryptography, involves
two keys: a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. This method ensures
that even if the public key is known, only the holder of the private key can decrypt the
message, thus providing a secure way to transfer data. References: Asymmetric encryption
is beneficial for secure data transfer because it allows message authentication, nonrepudiation, and detects tampering, although it is slower than symmetric encryption
Question # 45
During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeledand recorded to preserve its integrity?
A. examination B. investigation C. collection D. reporting
Answer: C
Explanation:
During the collection phase of the forensic process, data related to a specific event is
labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity. This step ensures that the data remains
unaltered and authentic from the time of collection until it is presented as
evidence,maintaining the chain of custody. References := Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
According to the NIST SP 800-86. which two types of data are considered volatile?(Choose two.)
A. swap files B. temporary files C. login sessions D. dump files E. free space
Answer: A,C
Explanation: Volatile data is information that is stored in memory or other temporary
storage that is lost when the power is turned off or lost. According to NIST SP 800-86, login
sessions and swap files are considered volatile because they exist in the system’s memory
and can be lost or changed rapidly
Question # 47
An analyst is using the SIEM platform and must extract a custom property from a Ciscodevice and capture the phrase, "File: Clean." Which regex must the analyst import?
A. File: Clean B. ^Parent File Clean$ C. File: Clean (.*) D. ^File: Clean$
Answer: A
Explanation: A regular expression (regex) is a sequence of characters that defines a
search pattern for text. A regex can be used to extract custom properties from log
messages or events in a SIEM platform. In this case, the regex that matches the phrase
“File: Clean” exactly is ^File: Clean$. The ^ symbol indicates the beginning of the line and
the $ symbol indicates the end of the line. The regex ensures that no other characters are
